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Subject:[socialcredit] Questions in regards to Dec. 'Triumph of the Past' Swanwick #2
Date:Wednesday, December 7, 2005  08:16:29 (-0800)
From:Joe Thomson <thomsonhiyu @....ca>

The expanded version of Swanwick principle # 2, as printed in (I believe) the second edition of 'Warning Democracy', and as reproduced on the NZ Social Credit Ass'n's website states:-  "That the credits required to finance production shall be supplied not from savings but from new credits relative to production, and shall be recalled only in the ratio of general depreciation to general appreciation." 
 
 I believe it's been established previously that in the first and third editions of 'Warning Democracy' the last part has been omitted, and the quote ends 'relative to new production', as it appears in the original rendition.  I don't recall now if it was ever determined why there was a change, and then a change back.  Does anyone know? 
 
Michael opines that the "national dividend" be used only to purchase 'consumer goods', and not 'stocks and bonds'.  How is it to be determined just 'what' the 'national dividend' in the hands of each of us as recipients will be spent on? 
 
 There is nothing I've seen in Douglas that distinguishes 'money' received from the 'national dividend' from any other 'money'. 
 
 It isn't of the nature of a 'Prosperity Certificate', for instance.  Nor, under what might be called 'normal' circumstances, where control over 'credit' wasn't being contested between two 'governments', would it be in a tangible form restricted in what it could be used for.  Does it not seem feasible that Douglas, in the expanded version of Swanwick # 2 above is referring to a macro-economic concept "the ratio (over the whole economy) of general depreciation to general appreciation", with ALL 'money' being analogous and concerned only with 'flows', not with what each individual who gets a 'national dividend' spends it on? 
 
If I used my 'national dividend' to purchase 'stocks and bonds' held by someone else, is it not conceivable that the seller might be using the money received to then purchase 'consumer goods'?  What's changed?  If I used my 'national dividend' to purchase capital stock, say when a firm makes an intial public offering, how would this differ from my using my 'earnings' to do the same thing?  Does not Swanwick # 2 simply encompass the changes in 'flows' at the macro-economic level so that the 'natioanal dividend' and 'compensated price discount' can be adjusted in future accordingly? 
 
Joe

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