|Subject:||[socialcredit] Is an SC dividend "rent"?|
|Date:||Monday, April 17, 2006 09:11:38 (EDT)|
|From:||Triumphofthepast <Triumphofthepast @...com>
One of Jeff's contentions was that any user of land ought to pay rent to everyone on the ground that he is excluding them from it. However, it is not necessarily true that he is excluding others from it.
Suppose the land is a farm and is well suited for growing wheat. Since I eat bread, I want the user be someone who knows how to grow wheat. If it is as much in my interest as his that he should farm it, then his use does not "exclude" me. As a citizen I certainly do have a stake in this land, but my stake is not expressed by a claim to use the land but a claim to eat the bread. What is important is that I be not excluded from eating the bread.
The social credit dividend assures this. In that money is how we allocate goods, and goods are finite, then bread allocated in national dividend is bread that is not allocated to wages for further wheat farming. Therefore, Jeff might want to think of the social credit dividend as a kind of "rent" before the fact, a "rent" more subtle and indirect than the one he proposes.